answer the questions

answer the questions

 
Lee, G., &Bishop,P. (2012). Microbiology and infection control for health
Professionals (4th ed.).Frenchs Forest, NSW, Australia.
Marieb, E., & Hoehn, K. (2012). Human Anatomy & Physiology (8th ed.). San
Francisco, USA.

 

MODULE 1: MICROBIOLOGY & IMMUNOLOGY

2.5 marks
Question 1.
The following notice is displayed in an Armidale pharmacy.

 

 

Note: In answering the following questions assume that ‘antibiotic’ refers to antibacterial drugs.
(a)What is the name of the microorganism which causes thrush and what type of microorganism is it?

 

 

(b)Obviously, if this organism causes thrush in the presence of antibiotics it’s resistant to these drugs. Why is it resistant to antibiotics?

 

 
(c)The rationale for using a probiotic to prevent thrush is that the ‘good’ bacteria it contains will replace and/or supplement natural ‘good’ bacteria in the normal flora. These ‘good’ bacteria normally prevent thrush, but may be destroyed by antibiotics. How do these ‘good’ bacteria prevent the numbers of potential pathogens in the normal flora (e.g. the causative agent of thrush) from becoming excessive, and so prevent them from causing disease?

 

(Answer Question 1(c) on next page)

 
1 mark
Question 2.
(a)One factor important for determining whether microorganisms will cause disease is how they enter the body. What term is used to describe an entry route which will enable a particular pathogen to cause disease?

 
(b)What is one factor associated with microorganisms, other than how they enter the body, which helps determine whether they will cause disease?

 
2 marks
Question 3
(a)An essential characteristic of antimicrobial drugs is that they inhibit the growth of or kill microorganisms but cause minimal harm to host cells. What term (two words) is used to describe this characteristic?

 

 

(b) Unfortunately, there are relatively few drugs effective against viruses because it is difficult to develop antiviral drugs with this characteristic (i.e. that named in a)). Explain, in terms of the relevant characteristic(s) of viruses, the reason for this difficulty.

 

 
2 marks
Question 4
Lee and Bishop (p. 372 in 5th edition) point out that ‘the most direct method for the diagnosis of an infection is by culture and identification of the cause from a patient specimen’. But they go on to say that ‘the microbiological analysis [on which identification of the cause is based] in the laboratory is only as reliable as the quality of the specimen allows’, with specimen quality depending on how it’s collected, stored and transported to the laboratory.

Give an example of one aspect of the collection or storage or transport of a specimen which may result in it being of ‘poor quality’. How would this ‘poor quality’ make it difficult or impossible for the microbiologist to identify the disease-causing microorganism in the specimen?

 

 

 

1.5 marks
Question 5
Identify one aspect of the body’s first-line non-specific defences which:
(a)moves microorganisms out of the body
(b)blocks microorganisms from gaining entry to the body’s tissues and fluids.
Note: The aspect given for (b) should be different from that given for (a).
(a)
(b)
1 mark
Question 6
What is one similarity and one difference between the lymph nodes and the spleen?

 

 

2 marks
Question 7
(a)The inflammatory response is characterized by four cardinal signs which are largely due to two types of changes in blood vessels at the inflammatory site. Identify one (of the two) changes in blood vessels which occur at the inflammatory site. Name one of the cardinal signs this change contributes to and explain how it does this.

 

 

(b)In addition to changes in blood vessels, the inflammatory response also involves the movement of certain proteins and cells from the blood into the tissues where they help in destroying microorganisms and/or preventing their spread. Identify one type of protein or cell which moves in this way and explain how it helps in the destruction and/or prevention of spread of microorganisms.

 

 
2 marks
Question 8
Complete the following statements by inserting appropriate words in the boxes provided.

An immune response involves the production of molecules called
and activated T cells.

Molecules which cause an immune response are called . .

A second immune response to a microorganism is different from the initial response in that it is , , and of longer duration.

These differences between the second and initial responses are due to the characteristic of specific defences called immunological .. .
2 marks
Question 9
Hay fever, allergic asthma and anaphylactic shock are pathological conditions due to Type I hypersensitivity reactions to allergens. Such reactions involve IgE, and the signs and symptoms of the resulting conditions are largely due to the effects of histamine and other chemical mediators whose release is induced by allergens.
(a)What does IgE refer to?
(b)Which cells are histamine and other chemical mediators released from?

 

(c)How do allergens induce the release of the chemicals referred to in (b)?

 
(d)Briefly explain how the effects on body components of histamine and/or other chemicals released in response to an allergen account for one of the symptoms of one of the pathological conditions named in (a) i.e. hay fever or allergic asthma or anaphylactic shock.

Pathological condition:
Symptom:
Explanation for this symptom:

MODULE 2: BLOOD (7 marks)

1 mark
Question 10.
What is the molecular composition of haemoglobin? What part is responsible for the binding of the oxygen molecules?

 

1 mark
Question 11.
What is the fate of the heme group after the destruction of red blood cells?

 

1 mark
Question 12.
What is thrombocytopenia? What are the clinical consequences? Which of the formed elements does this directly relate to?

 

2 marks
Question 13.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) Hypoxia stimulates the [Delete this], which results in the secretion of
[Delete this]which activates ethyropoiesis.
(b) A[Delete this]disorder can result from conditions that cause undesirable clot formation. Whereas the most common causes of bleeding disorders include platelet deficiency ([Delete this]) and deficits of some procoagulants.
2 marks
Question 14.
Kate’s has been told she has type O blood.
(a) What ABO antibodies does Kate have in her plasma?

 

(b) Which ABO antigens are present on Kate’s RBCs?

 

(c) Can Kate donate to an AB recipient (explain)?

 

(d) Can Kate receive blood from an AB donor (explain)?
MODULE 2: GENETICS / HEREDITY (7 marks)

1.5 marks
Question 15.
Nina (blood group B), Billie (blood group O) and Jimmy (blood group A) are all siblings and children of Geraldine’s (blood group O). Their father Darcy has just found his blood group to be AB.

(a)Is it possible that Darcy is the father of all three children? Explain your answerusing a punnet square.

 

 
b) What type of inheritance exists for ABO blood groups?

 

 

 

2 marks
Question 16.
Refer to the pedigree map below and answer the following questions

(a)What pattern of inheritance is shown?
(b)What are four ways to recognize this type of inheritance?
1. [Delete this with answer]
2. [Delete this with answer]
3. [Delete this with answer]
4. [Delete this with answer]

(c)How can you prove that the eldest son (II generation) is a heterozygote? [hint: look at his offspring]

 

(d) Name a disorder that follows this pattern of inheritance.

 
Question 17.
Consider a mating of a normal vision male with a heterozygous female, where the alleles XB = normal vision and Xb = colour blindness.
a) Complete the following punnet square.

Female EGGS

Male SPERM

b) What is thephenotypeof a child with the genotype XbY?
c) For their first pregnancy, what is the chance this couple will have a colour blind son?

 

0.5 marks
Question 18.
Most albino children are born to normally pigmented parents. Albinos are homozygous for the recessive gene (aa). What can you conclude about the genotypes of the nonalbino parents?
1 mark
Question 19.
Compare and contrast amniocentesis and chrionic villus sampling as to the time at which they an be performed and the techniques used to obtain information on the foetus’s genetic status.
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